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<div class="moz-cite-prefix">On 9/29/2017 1:51 PM, nIqolay Q wrote:<br>
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<blockquote type="cite"
cite="mid:CAG84SOtRih-XSG3MnurYbf3KVfSh+qT8n9=yj2ri+xAnxftTmg@mail.gmail.com">On
Fri, Sep 29, 2017 at 1:40 PM, SuStel <span dir="ltr"><<a
href="mailto:sustel@trimboli.name" target="_blank"
moz-do-not-send="true">sustel@trimboli.name</a>></span>
wrote:<span class=""></span>
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<p>I do think there are ways to use <b>Hech</b> that don't
involve <b>'e'.</b> Here's an example:</p>
<blockquote>
<p>nablIj wIlajchugh qaS Qugh. nab vIHechbogh jIH wIlajchugh
maQapchu'.<span class="HOEnZb"></span><br>
</p>
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<div><b>toH!</b> So the question here is not whether <b>Hech</b>
needs a <b>'e'</b>, but more specifically whether a quoted word
itself can be considered as an intended outcome, with the
implication of something intended to have been written or
spoken. <br>
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<div>(This is the sort of situation where the "avoid being too
Englishy" lobe of my brain starts acting up. Is this an English
affectation I should avoid? Or is it the sort of obvious
metaphor that most languages might develop naturally and I'm
just being needlessly pedantic? This comes up a lot for me.)</div>
</blockquote>
<p>That is the question for me, yes. It's possible that only <b>'e'</b>
and <b>net</b> are allowed; it's possible that anything you
intend to <i>do</i> or <i>happen</i> is allowed, whether
represented by single nouns or whole sentences; it's possible that
even quoted speech and writing is allowed. But when people say
things like <i><b>jul</b></i><b> vIHech,</b> I hear them
discarding the <i>mean to</i> part of the definition to get it to
match English. It's very unclear, and needs Okrandian
clarification.<br>
</p>
<pre class="moz-signature" cols="72">--
SuStel
<a class="moz-txt-link-freetext" href="http://trimboli.name">http://trimboli.name</a></pre>
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