[tlhIngan Hol] can the object of the {-meH} be the subject of what follows it ?

SuStel sustel at trimboli.name
Wed Oct 16 06:24:34 PDT 2019

On 10/16/2019 8:33 AM, mayqel qunen'oS wrote:
> SuStel:
>> tlhIngan leghmeH romuluSngan jach tlhIngan means
>> In order that the Romulan sees the Klingon, the Klingon shouts.
> There is still something which confuses me..
> We have the sentence:
> {tlhIngan leghmeH romuluSngan jach tlhIngan}
> The first part of the sentence, the {tlhIngan leghmeH romuluSngan},
> describes a purpose; the purpose that the "romulan sees the klingon".
> I can't understand "whose purpose this purpose is". Is this a purpose,
> which the romulan has ? Because if the romulan has this purpose, then
> how is it possible that someone else, i.e. the klingon, is the one
> acting towards that purpose in the second part of the sentence ?
> Or is this purpose, just "a purpose in general", case in which it
> *does*  make sense for someone other than the romulan, to be acting
> towards that purpose ?

Whose purpose it is will be subject to context. In this case, it's the 
Klingon's purpose because the Klingon is trying to get the Romulan's 
attention. The subject of the main clause will usually be the one acting 
toward the purpose, and I can't think of an example where that is not 
the case, but it's possible someone could construct a sentence that 
defies this expectation. (I'm ignoring sentences like *qIpmeH Qatlh'a',* 
whose grammar I find to be fairly impenetrable.)


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