[tlhIngan Hol] can the object of the {-meH} be the subject of what follows it ?
SuStel
sustel at trimboli.name
Thu Oct 17 07:40:50 PDT 2019
On 10/16/2019 5:00 PM, Will Martin wrote:
> I think that {QIpmeH qatlh’a’?} is basically {-meH} used as if it were
> to be used for a noun, but it’s used on a verb, instead. It’s a kind
> of verb phrase instead of a verb clause. It’s the same kind of
> infinitive (or near infinitive, since we are so shy about calling this
> an infinitive). “Is it difficult to hit?”
>
> The subtext is that if it’s not difficult to hit, I’m not going to
> bother with it. The whole point of hitting it is the difficulty.
>
> Perhaps a better literal translation would be “Is it in-order-to-hit
> difficult?”
I had the same thought, but it kind of falls down when we remember the
most prominent example of this phenomenon: *Heghlu'meH QaQ jajvam.* This
sentence explicitly mentions its (indefinite) subject, so it is not
infinitive.
However, there's no rule I'm aware of that says purpose-marked verbs
modifying nouns have to be infinitive. In fact, we know there is no such
rule, since we have *qaSuchmeH 'eb*/opportunity for me to visit you./
So whether a purpose-marked verb is infinitive or not is not prescribed
in the grammar, which is a big reason why I avoid casually declaring
anything to be infinitive in Klingon.
But it's still possible to view purpose clauses as closer-bound to their
verbs than other dependent clauses. They are, after all, described as a
different class than the other "subordinate" clauses, and they do only
appear in front of a verb. It may be that such clauses can be tightly
bound to a verb to mean what we're talking about.
However, they're not always this way. Our first purpose clause modifying
a verb is *jagh luHoHmeH jagh lunejtaH.* Notice that the object of *nej*
comes between *nej *and the purpose clause. This argues against
*luHoHmeH lunejtaH* being some kind of "verb phrase" that gets treated
as a verb the way a noun phrase gets treated as a noun. The purpose
clause here really is a separate clause.
Maybe the "verb phrase" idea is valid when the main verb is a verb of
quality but not a verb of action. Who knows? This is why I keep saying
we don't really know /why/ *qIpmeH Qatlh'a'* and *Heghlu'meH QaQ jajvam*
mean what they mean. The mechanics of the purpose clause are too unclear
for us to be able to explain them; we just have to take them on faith
that they work.
--
SuStel
http://trimboli.name
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