[tlhIngan Hol] is this grammatically correct ?

[SuStel]

On 11/6/2019 10:05 AM, mayqel qunen'oS wrote:
>
> Suppose I write:
>
>
> {raS retlhDaq Qot voDleH; pa' Qotbogh je nuvpu'vaD jatlh..}
>
>
> for:
>
>
> "the emperor was reclining next to the table; he said for the people 
> who were reclining there too.."
>
>
> Would the klingon sentence be grammatically correct ? I'm troubled by 
> the {je} following a {-bogh} clause, and I don't know whether the 
> {pa'} can refer *only* to the {Qotbogh}.
>
>
> I know I could express the desired meaning in other ways too, but I 
> can't stop wondering whether the klingon sentence is actually correct.
>
As others have said, it's not grammatically wrong, but it is difficult 
to follow, with a locative attached to a relative clause attached to a 
beneficiary attached to a verb.

You can simplify it: *raS retlhDaq Qot voDleH latlh je; latlhvaD jatlh 
voDleH...*

-- 
SuStel
http://trimboli.name

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