[tlhIngan Hol] Can we say {qarbe''a'} ?

[nIqolay Q]

On Tue, May 7, 2019 at 2:41 PM mayqel qunen'oS <mihkoun at gmail.com> wrote:

> Read:
>
> wagh vIghro'mey tIQ, qar'a' ?
>
> ancient cats are expensive, is it accurate ?
>
> This is correct.
>
> Now, read this too:
>
> wagh vIghro'mey tIQ, qarbe''a' ?
>
> ancient cats are expensive, isn't it accurate ?
>
> Is the above correct ? And if yes, is there any difference in meaning
> compared to the first sentence ? Because I can't understand any difference
> in meaning, if any..
>

We do have an example of *-be''a'* sentences. *cheqotlhchugh maHaghbe''a'?
cheDuQchugh mareghbe''a'? cheQIHchugh manoDbe''a'?* *Tickle us, do we not
laugh? Prick us, do we not bleed? Wrong us, shall we not seek revenge?*

In this case, it does seem to be used to indicate questions intended to get
a "no" or "that is not the case" answer. (E.g.: "No, it is not the case
that you don't laugh when tickled.") It's also a rhetorical flourish,
intended to make the speaker think "It is the case that you laugh when
tickled", so perhaps this grammar can't be taken 100% literally.
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