[tlhIngan Hol] difference between {ta'} and {voDleH}

[DloraH]

On Mon, 1 Jul 2019 17:44:38 +0300
"mayqel qunen'oS" <mihkoun at gmail.com> wrote:

> voragh:
> > I can’t see any real difference in usage.
> > Can you?
> 
> Me neither.
> 
> I just *feel* as a more "formal" word the {voDleH} compared to the
> {ta'}, but of course this is just a "feeling".
> 
> What I do wonder though, is whether in a looong text e.g. the new
> testament, I should choose one of the two and stick with it, or use
> them interchangeably.
> 
> But I guess there's no answer to that.
> 
> But if there *is* one, qeylIS knows, I would like to hear it..
> 
> ~ gkgjkh


As already stated, we don't know if there is a difference; but I am
curious... in the /original/ text, how many words are used for emperor,
king, and other related words?

- DloraH