[tlhIngan Hol] Placement of the adverb
Lieven
levinius at gmx.de
Wed Oct 11 06:38:23 PDT 2017
On 10/11/2017 7:11 AM, mayqel qunenoS wrote:
>> Is there a difference between these two sentences ?
Am 11.10.2017 um 15:03 schrieb SuStel:
> Do Klingons do this? Probably. Everyday Klingon speech is probably a lot
> less formal than we teach on this list. I don't think we've seen this
> particular thing being done before, though.
I'v also been thinking about this lately, and like to ask the question
differently:
TKD tells us that the adverbial comes at the beginning of a sentence.
The question is, how is a sentence defined, or wouldn't it be better to
define this as "the adverbial comes at the beginning of a
[linguistic-term-here] clause"?
paq'batlh has a phrase where the word {DaH} does not appear at the very
beginning, but it appears on a spot where it modifies the right verb:
{SuvwI' DameH puqloDwI' vIghojHa'moH DaH 'e' vItlhoj}
"I see now, I have failed to raise my son a man."
instead of going for
{DaH [SuvwI' DameH puqloDwI' vIghojHa'moH 'e' vItlhoj]. }
mayqel's question can apply to many adverbials:
ghorgh bIghungmo' bIHegh?
bIghungmo' ghorgh bIHegh?
bIpuvtaHvIS qatlh bIbom?
qatlh bIpuvtaHvIS bIbom?
Is there any canon for this, or at least some linguistic argument for this?
I dare not to say that it "feels" right. :-)
--
Lieven L. Litaer
aka the "Klingon Teacher from Germany"
http://www.klingonisch.net
http://www.klingonwiki.net/En/Adverbials
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