[tlhIngan Hol] qepHom grammar questions

[nIqolay Q]

On Thu, Oct 5, 2017 at 5:20 PM, nIqolay Q <niqolay0 at gmail.com> wrote:
>
> Is it the *-qang* suffix that's the problem, then?
> Does *yaSvaD taj nobqang qama' *not have an indirect object now, because
> the giving is only potential and might not actually happen?
> And would *bangwI', SoHvaD wa'SaD SuvwI' vIHoHta' *now have an indirect
> object, because the killing has happened in reality and my beloved (the
> "you" being addressed) has received some sign of devotion from that?
> In* bangwI',* *SoHvaD wa'SaD SuvwI' vIHoHqang*, are the warriors not
> really a direct object, because they only exist hypothetically and
> therefore nothing is directly happening to them? Am I not a subject because
> I haven't actually done any killing yet? Where's the dividing line between
> semantic and syntactic role here?
>


> In any case, I'm not sure this discussion is going to get anywhere just
> relying on our own interpretations of Okrand's use of terminology, since we
> don't accept each other's interpretations.
>

I have just realized that it's not very honorable to say that I don't think
the discussion can get anywhere, while forgetting to remove the questions
intended to inspire further discussion. You don't have to answer those.
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