[tlhIngan Hol] Placement of the adverb

Lieven levinius at gmx.de
Wed Oct 11 06:38:23 PDT 2017

On 10/11/2017 7:11 AM, mayqel qunenoS wrote:
>> Is there a difference between these two sentences ?

Am 11.10.2017 um 15:03 schrieb SuStel:
> Do Klingons do this? Probably. Everyday Klingon speech is probably a lot 
> less formal than we teach on this list. I don't think we've seen this 
> particular thing being done before, though.

I'v also been thinking about this lately, and like to ask the question 

TKD tells us that the adverbial comes at the beginning of a sentence. 
The question is, how is a sentence defined, or wouldn't it be better to 
define this as "the adverbial comes at the beginning of a 
[linguistic-term-here] clause"?

paq'batlh has a phrase where the word {DaH} does not appear at the very 
beginning, but it appears on a spot where it modifies the right verb:

{SuvwI' DameH puqloDwI' vIghojHa'moH DaH 'e' vItlhoj}
"I see now, I have failed to raise my son a man."

instead of going for
{DaH [SuvwI' DameH puqloDwI' vIghojHa'moH 'e' vItlhoj]. }

mayqel's question can apply to many adverbials:

ghorgh bIghungmo' bIHegh?
bIghungmo' ghorgh bIHegh?

bIpuvtaHvIS qatlh bIbom?
qatlh bIpuvtaHvIS bIbom?

Is there any canon for this, or at least some linguistic argument for this?

I dare not to say that it "feels" right. :-)

Lieven L. Litaer
aka the "Klingon Teacher from Germany"

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