[tlhIngan Hol] The {-wI'} and the {-lu'}

[nIqolay Q]

On Sat, Aug 26, 2017 at 12:45 PM, mayqel qunenoS <mihkoun at gmail.com> wrote:

> However, if the {vumlu'wI'} is indeed a meaningless word due to the
> presence of {-lu'}, then I wonder why there hasn't anywhere (in a book)
> being made a reference, with regards to the fact that the {-lu'} and {-wI'}
> can't co-exist in the same word.
>

Maybe Marc Okrand assumed their incompatability was obvious and didn't feel
the need to point it out. Or perhaps it simply never occured to him and
nobody asked him about it. After all, the proper use of {-be'} in
imperative verbs wasn't cleared up for 32 years.
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