[tlhIngan Hol] Which of the two expresses the {-pu'} better ?

SuStel sustel at trimboli.name
Thu Nov 24 10:23:37 PST 2016

On 11/24/2016 1:10 PM, mayqel qunenoS wrote:
> SuStel:
>> You tell me: what is the difference between "the axe fell" and "the axe has fallen"?
> I can't think of any difference between them. The only thing I can
> think of, is that the "the axe has fallen", perhaps sounds a little
> more "vague". But that aside, I agree that there is no "detectable"
> difference between them.

Exactly. The difference is purely grammatical. "The axe fell" is simple 
past tense; "the axe has fallen" is present perfect tense.

Klingon doesn't have simple past tense or present perfect tense, so 
there's little point in asking which is the better translation. Use 
whichever translation is most appropriate for what you're saying or 
writing. Sometimes either one will do.


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