[tlhIngan Hol] Can we have the {-be'} twice ?

mayqel qunenoS mihkoun at gmail.com
Wed Nov 16 04:47:20 PST 2016

ok, wait..

if we don't take into account the last qepHom; if we approach the
{jIghelbe'choHlaHbe'} by the grammar we knew all those years, then this
means what ? that we can have two {-be'} in a single word ?

ghoghwIj HablI'vo' vIngeHta'

On 16 Nov 2016 2:35 pm, "SuStel" <sustel at trimboli.name> wrote:

> On 11/16/2016 7:14 AM, kechpaja wrote:
>> At the qepHom earlier this month, Marc told me and a few other folks
>> that you can't have more than one {-be'} (or more than one {-qu'}) in a
>> single word.
>> (Has this been documented anywhere? I didn't write down what Marc said
>> verbatim; I only remember having the discussion)
> So far as I know, this is new information.
> --
> SuStel
> http://trimboli.name
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