[tlhIngan Hol] Which of the two expresses the {-pu'} better ?

[mayqel qunenoS]

SuStel:
> You tell me: what is the difference between "the axe fell" and "the axe has fallen"?

I can't think of any difference between them. The only thing I can
think of, is that the "the axe has fallen", perhaps sounds a little
more "vague". But that aside, I agree that there is no "detectable"
difference between them.

qunnoH jan puqloD

On Thu, Nov 24, 2016 at 5:44 PM, SuStel <sustel at trimboli.name> wrote:
> On 11/24/2016 10:09 AM, mayqel qunenoS wrote:
>>
>>
>> SuStel:
>> > It depends on whether you're writing in the
>> > present or past tenses
>>
>> This means that the "the axe fell" is the meaning if I'm writing in the
>> present tense (describing something which happened today), and the "the axe
>> has fallen" is the meaning if I'm writing in the past tense (describing
>> something which happened e.g. yesterday) ?
>>
>
> No. There is no one, absolutely correct translation. This isn't computer
> programming.
>
> You tell me: what is the difference between "the axe fell" and "the axe has
> fallen"?
>
>
> --
> SuStel
> http://trimboli.name
>
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