[tlhIngan Hol] Can I use verb type 9 suffix {-wI'}, after other suffixes ?

André Müller esperantist at gmail.com
Mon Jun 27 06:54:44 PDT 2016


Yes, there's no problem with it. If the semantics still make sense after
nominalizing a verb with {-wI'} I see no problem. You could describe
someone who is willing to learn Klingon as a {ghojqangwI'}, and someone who
is afraid to speak a {jatlhvIpwI'}. And so on... we also have a few
examples of canonical words involving {-wI'} and a verbal suffix:

* {QaDmoHwI' DIr} = towel (lit.: dry-maker skin)
* {Say'moHwI' tlhagh} = soap (lit.: clean-maker fat)
* {Sut HabmoHwI'} = iron (lit.: clothing smooth-maker)

I see no reason to think that this shouldn't work with other suffixes just
as well.

What's arguable not possible (but we don't know for sure, I think) is using
{-wI'} on a verb with prefixes. I would probably not accept ?{muparHa'wI'}
as a word for 'someone who likes me'.

- André

2016-06-27 15:40 GMT+02:00 mayqel qunenoS <mihkoun at gmail.com>:

> So far, I considered verb type 9 suffix {-wI'), as a suffix, one could
> use on a verb, which verb didn't have a preceding suffix. And I really
> don't know why I had that impression.
>
> But recently, at another thread, I saw someone using the verb type 9
> suffix {-wI'}, on a verb which had another type of verb suffix,
> preceding the {-wI'}.
>
> So, I want to ask ; is this allowed ? Can I place the verb type 9
> suffix, on a verb which has another verb suffix, preceding ?
>
> Of course the question would be : "why would you want to ?". Right now
> I can't think of a reason. However I remember that the person who had
> used it this way, had actually created a construction which made
> perfect sense, and was appropriate for the occasion.
>
> mop Hurgh qunnoq
> QeH SeHlu'bogh Hol 'oH tlhIngan Hol'e'
> _______________________________________________
> tlhIngan-Hol mailing list
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>
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